P
Peter
- Jan 1, 1970
- 0
I'm trying to figure something out and so far no one has come up with an
answer.
If I have a voltage divider network (Just 2 resistors) and I bypass the
bottom one with a cap with an AC source in. How do I figure out the
impedance?
My goal is the following: put a sine wave in with say 4v p-p in @1kHz, have
an R1 and R2 (equal value) with a bypass cap on R2 (the other side of R2 is
connected to ground) and say I get 1v p-p out (the middle of R1 and R2 is my
output). I want to take that circuit and replace it with just R1 and R2
(keeping R1 the same value) and get the same amplitude out. I don't care
about phase right now.
Anyone have any ideas?
answer.
If I have a voltage divider network (Just 2 resistors) and I bypass the
bottom one with a cap with an AC source in. How do I figure out the
impedance?
My goal is the following: put a sine wave in with say 4v p-p in @1kHz, have
an R1 and R2 (equal value) with a bypass cap on R2 (the other side of R2 is
connected to ground) and say I get 1v p-p out (the middle of R1 and R2 is my
output). I want to take that circuit and replace it with just R1 and R2
(keeping R1 the same value) and get the same amplitude out. I don't care
about phase right now.
Anyone have any ideas?