Connect with us

About phasor

Discussion in 'Electronic Design' started by Samper, May 8, 2005.

Scroll to continue with content
  1. Samper

    Samper Guest

    I have a RC circuit and a imput x=a*expjF. The output is
    y:(1/1+2*pi*f*R*C)*a*expjF. Why the phase of the output (that for
    definition is atan(im/re)) in this case is:
    phase=arctg(F-2*pi*R*C)?
    Thanks in advance
     
  2. Andrew Holme

    Andrew Holme Guest

    It isn't. The phase of the output is:

    F - arctan(2*pi*R*C)
     
  3. Michael

    Michael Guest

    The output phase should be:

    -arctan(2*pi*f*R*C)

    With this Im assuming that F in your equation is the same as f, they
    are both frequencies. If this is not the case and F is the input
    phase, then the output phase is:

    F-arctan(2*pi*f*R*C)

    Dimensionaly arctan(2*pi*R*C) is not a phase, it needs the extra f
    inside the arctan.
     
  4. Andrew Holme

    Andrew Holme Guest

    Oops .... that was a typo on my part. I meant: F - arctan(2*pi*f*R*C)
    I think F is the input phase because the input was given as a*exp(jF) =
    a*(cos(F) + jsin(F))
     
  5. John Smith

    John Smith Guest

    or angular frequency
     
  6. Andrew Holme

    Andrew Holme Guest

    No, I don't think so: there's no time variable (as in omega*t)
    r*exp(j*theta) is the r-theta (magnitude / angle) expression of a complex
    number.
     
Ask a Question
Want to reply to this thread or ask your own question?
You'll need to choose a username for the site, which only take a couple of moments (here). After that, you can post your question and our members will help you out.
Electronics Point Logo
Continue to site
Quote of the day

-